[quote=Tim de Jong Atria Institute on Gender Equality and Women's History][quote=Nathalie Meurens][quote=Council of Europe][quote=Irene Rosales][quote=Nathalie Meurens][quote=Irene Rosales][quote=Nathalie Meurens]
Thanks a lot for your feedback on the IPV indicators. We will now proceed with the suggested indicator on rape:
Women victims of rape aged 18 and over, as a share of the population of women aged 18 and over
Within the scope of this indicator, rape should be understood as: sexual penetration, whether vaginal, anal or oral, through the use of an object or body parts, without consent, using force or by taking advantage of the vulnerability of the victim.
The indicator could be measured by the following sources and units:
1. Source: police records of crimes (cases reported to the police); units: number of women victims recorded by the police per calendar year.
2. Source: Hospital and healthcare professionals’ records; units: number of women patients per calendar year.
Source 1 figures from every Member State would be very useful, while source 2 data could remain optional, given the difficulties in its collection.
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Hello! Here, I don't understand why you are including the "using of force" in the definition when it was not the case of the the definition of "sexual violence in the context of intimate partner violence". Although I acknowledge that certain legal definitions in the EU can still be based in the use of force, I think we should follow Istanbul Convention standards. Even if this is a definition for statistical purposes, it might set some guidance on how to address the issue of rape.
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We used both the Istanbul Convention and national definitions. The use of force is a circumstance where the lack of consent can be presumed. Since it is difficult to prove the lack of consent as such most definitions often use the use of force as presumption of lack of consent. As a matter of fact, 27 out of the 28 Member States refer to 'use of force' in their definitions. Since we wanted indicators that could be populated by existing national data, we wanted to reflect elements of definitions that are largely used across the EU while taking into account the Istanbul Convention and the ICCS (basically using the best of both worlds).
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Thanks for the clarification. However, Having 14 EU MS states that have ratified the Istanbul Convention and 14 that have signed, and having the EC proposal for the EU to sign and ratify, we should be providing a consistent definition when looking at this issue.
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Yes, more and more EU states are ratifying the Istanbul Convention and are actually moving towards changes in their definitions of rape. Like I said, Germany and Austria do now, England and Wales have a rape provision on the basis of consent and more will certainly follow. France is discussing moving towards a consent-based solution. It would be important to take this developments into account and ensure consistency and keep definitions in line with the Istanbul Convention.
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When developing the definitions, the consistency with the Istanbul Convention was crucial to us.
I copy pasted both the Istanbul Convention definition and the indicator definition for easier reference here below. As you see the same elements are reflected in both, with the addition of use of force and taking advantage of vulnerability that are also present in the indicator definition.
Istanbul Convention: engaging in non-consensual vaginal, anal or oral penetration of a sexual nature of the body of another person with any bodily part or object;
Indicator definition: sexual penetration, whether vaginal, anal or oral, through the use of an object or body parts, without consent, using force or by taking advantage of the vulnerability of the victim.
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A question about 'without consent': is this aspect clear enough? Does consent mean verbalised consent? Or verbalised non-consent? Also: consent can be withdrawn at some point during sexual activity.
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You raise a good point. Consent can be very difficult to define and issues of consent can arise at different points into the violence. It is also hard to provide evidence of the lack of consent, whether verbalised or not. This is why many national definitions also include use of force and taking advantage of vulnerability.
However, for the data collection purpose, I am not sure this is so relevant to specify further the concept of consent. How would this affect the data collection to specify whether the concept needs verbalising or not?